Why would Barca (or anyone else for that matter) have bid over his release clause?
Because, in the words of John Henry, "Release clauses don't mean anything in Football". I think I'm just a bit peaved that the one major signing they could have made before getting the ban just so happened to be OUR superstar player rather than anyone elses.
Suarez didn't have a concrete release clause in his previous contract. I think it was a loosely worded clause that he could talk to a team if they offered 40mil. I have a feeling there was a mention of it having to be a champions league team as well and at the time of their bid, Arsenal weren't technically in the Champions League.
Do you really think Suarez signed a new contract without a cast iron clause being inserted of which there was no ambiguity
